Since Moses was called elohim, does that make him God?
"And the Lord said to Moses: Behold I have appointed thee the God of Pharao: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." (Exodus 7:1 DRB)
Thankful for Google transliterates יהוה in English as Jehovah. Visit JW.org about whom Jesus Christ calls the Only True God in (John 17:3)
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@Keep_Smiling_4_Jesus Hebrew word אלהים is plural, which is a minimum of three. Hebrew language nouns have three spelling options: singular, dual, & plural. What is plural in One unique אלהים God ?
So which God is Moses?
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@BroRando posted:
So which God is Moses?
The Exodus 7 verse that you quoted in a previous post doesn't say Moses is any kind of god. The verse includes God's commitment to make Moses LIKE a god to Pharaoh. Moses (and Aaron) will speak to Pharaoh the words God provides them. In effect, they will be God's official representatives. The verse has a meaning quite in keeping with Exodus 4.16, in which God describes Moses' and Aaron's functions as they prepare to meet Pharaoh:
16 And he [Aaron] will speak for you [Moses] to the people, ⌊and then⌋ he will be to you as a mouth, and you will be to him as a god.
It's not that Moses will BE God to Aaron - recall that there is only one God - but that Moses will serve in a god-like role to Aaron: Moses will tell Aaron what to say to Pharaoh and God will inspire both Moses and Aaron in their appearance before the Egyptian leader.
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"And the Lord said to Moses: Behold I have appointed thee the God of Pharao: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet." (Exodus 7:1 DRB)
You do realize that the majority of translations do not use a definite article with God as it isn't found in the text.
It isn't in the Hebrew, DSS, LXX, Targums, or Vulgate texts. So, it isn't surprising that English translations, apart from the Douay-Rheims, do not have the. Translations use a, as a, like a, a leader, role of, etc. to express this thought.
In looking at this text I came across an interesting item to share with you. In the LXX this portion is written δέδωκά σε θεὸν Φαραω [give you (as) God (to) Pharaoh].
I want to ask you why Moses is greater than Jesus as it is often asserted Jesus is never called θεὸν. How would you explain that Moses is elevated to this greater height above Jesus by being called θεὸν?
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I can't find any disagreement with you in your explaination. Moses was acting as God's Spokesman and was given authority. Therefore Moses was acting in a specific and offical capacity. The Catholic scripture is misleading. Even though Moses is called elohim, it does not make him God. Elohim is a tile that can be applied to angels and even men who represent God, not that he is God. Like theos, elohim can be rendered, God, a god, or even gods. Infinite articles can be used like god, as a god, as god, a god can be used.
And Jehovah saith unto Moses, 'See, I have given thee a god to Pharaoh, and Aaron thy brother is thy prophet;
Jesus also was acting as God's Spokesman as the Word of God and was given authority. Therefore Jesus was acting in a specific and offical capacity. Theos can also be God, a god which is alos applied to angels of men. It is a title after all. Even Jesus is godlike as spme transaltions use.
How does John 1:1 read with a literal translation?
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and a god was the Word.”
- 1975 “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word” – Das Evangelium nach Johnnes, by Siegfried Schulz, Göttingen, Germany
- 1978: “and godlike sort was the Logos” – Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider, Berlin
Notice these scriptures about Jesus Christ?
- You made him a little lower than the angels; You crowned him with glory and honor. Psalm 8:5
- I have said, 'You are gods; you are all sons of the Most High.' Psalm 82:6
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Others can be called "god", but Jesus is "my God" (John 20:28).
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John 20:28 is a paraphrase scripture that leads to apostasy in rejecting that Jesus is "the Christ, the Son of the living God." (Matthew 16:16)
The scripture actually states "the Lord of Me and the God of Me" Look it up in the Greek. Thomas made the same exclamation that Aaron would of stated to his young brother Moses! The statement does do not make him God.
Also, Thomas used the inferior title for God which is theos. Theos is used and shared among creation. The title is attached to Jesus, other angels, men, and even Satan. Notice theos blinds the mind of unbelievers so that they don't believe that Jesus is the CHRIST.
- The god (theos) of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see the light of the gospel that displays the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. (2 Cor 4:4) SEE ---> in Greek theos is used for SATAN.
If you're interested in what Greek title Jesus used to prove that Jehovah is the true God, I will be more than happy to share that information with you.
Take Care.
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That's great, because this demonstrates Jesus is the Almighty.
"The God of me"
Satan is the god of this wicked world.
Big difference.
Aaron never referred to Moses as "the G/god of me."
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You comment "this demonstrates Jesus is the Almighty." is False. There is NO such SCRIPTURE.
- The phrase "Jesus is the Almighty" is absent from the Bible.
If you can share a scripture that states your claim. I would be willing to listen to your explanation.
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When the expression, "My God" is used by a believer in the Bible it always refers to the Almighty.
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You mean like when Jesus was pleaded to His Father and God JEHOVAH by pleading with him stating:
About the ninth hour, Jesus called out with a loud voice, saying: “Eʹli, Eʹli, laʹma sa·bach·thaʹni?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
You have No Clue what you are speaking about. And you call yourself a believer?? According to Jesus he claims his Father is the only true God.
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
You have no idea that Jehovah is the only true God... there is no other... tell me something you know and stop talking about what you don't know.
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Yes, the Father is "my God" (Matthew 27:46). What refutes your false doctrine is that Jesus is "my God" according to John 20:28.
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Jesus is the Christ.... and has a God and Father.
But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.
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"My God" in John 20:28 isn't going away.
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The scripture does not state "My God" nor does it state "Jesus is God" or never does it state Jesus is Almighty" All are know has gymnastic scriptures because you are twisting them into a pretzel to make a falsehood come about.
But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.
1 Cor 11;3 isn't going away.
About the ninth hour, Jesus called out with a loud voice, saying: “Eʹli, Eʹli, laʹma sa·bach·thaʹni?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
You have No Clue what you are speaking about. And you call yourself a believer?? According to Jesus he claims his Father is the only true God.
This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
Matthew 27:46 and John 17:3 are never going away either. If Jesus was God why is he depending on another God to save him??
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"My God" appears in John 20:28.
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No it doesn't, read the Greek... never states Jesus is God. I can say the same thing about Moses.
One can Satan is your God. Why? Because Satan has BLINDED the minds of unbelievers to deny Jesus as the Christ, the Son of the living God. (Matthew 16L16)
Who was that Person who became flesh? Trinitarians claim God and Christians claim Jesus Christ.
For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those not acknowledging Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist.
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Satan is not called "my God."
Next...
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Jesus is referred to as "my God" in John 20:28.
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Nope the word "my" is not even in the scripture.
If Jesus is God then which "my God" is he speaking too?
About the ninth hour, Jesus called out with a loud voice, saying: “Eʹli, Eʹli, laʹma sa·bach·thaʹni?” that is, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
If Jesus is God then can we assume that when God was dying he was unable to save himself and cried out “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
Therefore, Jesus can't be "my God".
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Jesus isn't speaking in John 20:28.
Get a clue.
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That's correct... Yet you reject Jesus Christ personal teaching's.... "the Father is Greater than I am"... isn't that a quote from Jesus Christ?
He is the image of the invisible God, the Firstborn of all creation;
If Jesus is God then can we conclude that God is Firstborn of All Creation? What happened to God being eternal and always existing? Firstborn is a genitive noun meaning offspring.
Why do you continue to reject Jesus Christ and his sayings?
do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’?
Freddy would say "Noooo Jesus. Don't you know you are God Almighty??" Freddy stops following Christ and returns to his demonic teaches...His Almighty God died.
Don't you know the scripture for Salvation???
Nooooooooooooooooooo...
For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.
Freddy rejects God raised Jesus from the Dead... by they way Who was that, whom made Jesus, Lord and Christ?? Can you even find that scripture? PROVE IT!
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Another dodge of John 20:28.
Try again.
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Irrelevant, because Thomas refers to Jesus as "my God."
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Irrelevant, Thomas never referred to Jesus as my God... "my" is not even in the scripture.
Therefore you cannot be saved read Romans 10:9 again, the Bible itself bears witness against you.
For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.
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Even the JW's have affirmed that "God" in John 20:28 is used in reference to Jesus.
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Of course... under theos which is one of five Greek Cases for God... but theos never refers to Almighty.
- John 20:28
- John 1:18b
- John 1:1c
Theos is also used in reference to Satan.
- 2 Corinthians 4:4
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Great, because "My God" in John 20:28 refers to Jesus.
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God in this sense is theos (Θεὸς) meaning godlike or who like God? As in John 1:1c his qualitative sense is that he is godlike or who is like God? Divine.
theos is non-accusative which means it is nominative. The only Greek case of God in the accusative is ton theon rendered τὸν Θεόν which never applied to Jesus Christ.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God (τὸν Θεόν), and the Word was a god (Θεὸς).
- (τὸν Θεόν) means the God as the Eternal and Everlasting One, the Self Existing One. JEHOVAH (τὸν Θεόν) is ACCUSATIVE
- (Θεὸς) is what Word was, but it is speaking of his qualitative sense of being divine as the Firstborn of All Creation. God's Firstborn Son.
No man has seen God (τὸν Θεόν) at any time; the only-begotten god (Θεὸς) who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him.
Also, we have Jesus Christ's Personal Words and teachings that you deny and reject but I will post them once again.
- (τὸν Θεόν) means the God as the Eternal and Everlasting One, the Self Existing One. JEHOVAH (τὸν Θεόν) is ACCUSATIVE SENSE
